Harvard Magazine has an interesting story concerning history and, for many of us, our distant ancestors. The article is subtitled, "The written record of history meets genomics, evolution, demography, and molecular archaeology.'
Historians know that something dramatic happened in England just as the Roman empire was collapsing. When the Anglo-Saxons first arrived in the fourth century A.D.--whether as immigrants or invaders is debated--they encountered an existing Romano-Celtic population estimated at between 2 million and 3.7 million people. Latin and Celtic were the dominant languages.
The ensuing cultural transformation was so complete, says Goelet professor of medieval history Michael McCormick, that 400 years later, English civilization considered itself completely Anglo-Saxon, and spoke only Anglo-Saxon. This extraordinary change has had ramifications down to the present, and is why so many people speak English rather than Latin or Celtic today. But how English culture was completely remade, the historical record does not say.
Then, in 2002, scientists found a genetic signature in the DNA of living British men that hinted at an untold story of Anglo-Saxon conquest.
The full article is available at http://harvardmagazine.com/2009/07/who-killed-the-men-england.
My thanks to Richard P Draves for telling me about this article.
I have no doubt that someone will blame the Jews.
Posted by: Israel Pickholtz - Jerusalem | July 19, 2009 at 02:33 AM
Intriguing. I know so many people who are lactose-intolerant, too. It will be interesting to see how this research unfolds. Very professionally written article, right on down to the creative artwork. Thanks to both Richards for sharing!
Happy Dae·
http://ShoeStringGenealogy.com
Posted by: Dae Powell | July 19, 2009 at 09:08 AM
Why Domesday towns in central England? Did they choose only those who could trace their lineage back to the 1080s? What is the relevance of 11th century Domesday towns to 5th century Britain? And/or Roman Britain? Is it that the towns have Saxon names? In an area of Saxon settlement is it so surprising that a lot of the population have Saxon genetic roots? Haven't they heard that immigrant populations interbreed with the indigenous people?
I notice that they did not survey those areas in the north of England which had been under the Danelaw. I would have expected that the results would have a bit been different from those areas in the south where the Anglo Saxons and not the Vikings settled - in the same way that the Welsh results are different.
How can they state
"Between 50 percent and 100 percent of indigenous English men today, the researchers estimate, are descended from Anglo-Saxons who arrived on England’s eastern coast 16 centuries ago."
when their survey was statistically flawed as it was not a valid sample? They cannot extrapolate from this data when large and genetically different areas have been omitted. What do they mean by indigenous? How can they tell who is indigenous after 2000 years of immigration?
I do also rather take issue with the statement that England considered itself Anglo Saxon being a northerner from within the area of the Danelaw with Viking ancestors and blood group A to prove it. Their definition of England is a rather narrow one although I suppose accurate in 400 BCE and this is not pointed out in the article. Nor is it pointed out that this view of Anglo Saxon culture and how it thought is not exactly corroborated by masses of evidence. In fact written evidence for this period I understand is rather in short supply.
So guys you need to research further what exactly "English" and "Briton" means and in what time frames as you seem to think they are interchangeable.
Posted by: jacqui | July 19, 2009 at 09:22 AM
I find the article and all of the comments intriguing. I am fascinated with British history and archaeology so what more could I ask? Keep up the debate, it's a wonderful way to learn!
Posted by: Rosemary Hislop | July 20, 2009 at 04:18 AM
sorry typo should be CE not BCE otherwise know as AD!!!!
Posted by: jacqui | July 20, 2009 at 06:08 AM
Jacqui is absolutely right concerning the flawed methodology. Given the very high levels of internal migration within the British Isles since the Industrial Revolution, there is little chance of more than a tiny number of men in a given town having ancestry going back between 1200 and 1600 years in the same area!
England during the Dark Ages was divided into a number of kingdoms. Vikings, Anglo-Saxons and Celts dominated in different areas. The strongholds of the Celts were in the west and south-west of the England but the line that the researchers drew across central England completely missed those areas.
There are no mass graves. The Celts were not massacred. They survived in large numbers in Wales and Cornwall. They also migrated in large numbers across the Channel to Brittany.
Posted by: Caroline Gurney | July 20, 2009 at 08:45 AM